The Shakespeare Conference: SHK 10.0113 Thursday, 21 January 1999.
Date: Wednesday, 20 Jan 1999 15:21:34 +0000
With all of the research regarding WS and KJV (and the 46 conundrum)
which has been a semi-raging topic recently here on SHAKSPER, perhaps
it's safe (relatively) for me to raise a question. Several years ago I
read some books, some with near convincing paintings of WS, which took
the position that, in fact, Shakespeare was of African descent (meaning
Black) hence the relatively unusual name "Shakes-speare." Is this
reasonable? Does the Shakespeare name (obviously with alternate
spellings) exist prior to William? Given the British tradition of last
names being based on vocation or location (Miller, Ford, Baker, etc) at
this part of the premise strikes me as plausible.
On the other hand, given the recent 46 discussion, pure plausibility is
not entirely convincing either.
Any thoughts from our armchair, er...keyboard scholars?