The Shakespeare Conference: SHK 10.0120  Friday, 22 January 1999.

[1]     From:   Tim Perfect <
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        Date:   Thursday, 21 Jan 1999 05:49:28 -0800 (PST)
        Subj:   Re: SHK 10.0113 Spear-shaking

[2]     From:   Wes Folkerth <
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        Date:   Thursday, 21 Jan 1999 09:30:02 -0500
        Subj:   Spear-shaking

[3]     From:   Kristine Batey <
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        Date:   Thursday, 21 Jan 1999 09:35:57 -0600
        Subj:   Re: Spear-shaking


[1]-----------------------------------------------------------------
From:           Tim Perfect <
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Date:           Thursday, 21 Jan 1999 05:49:28 -0800 (PST)
Subject: 10.0113 Spear-shaking
Comment:        Re: SHK 10.0113 Spear-shaking

How about this log on the fire?

Moammar Khaddafi (sp?) claimed that Shakespeare was actually of Middle
Eastern descent.  His proof was all in the name as well. His 'records'
claimed it was actually

"Sheikh Zubayire" (say it out loud)

who wrote the complete works.

I think it's pretty funny.

Tim

[2]-------------------------------------------------------------
From:           Wes Folkerth <
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Date:           Thursday, 21 Jan 1999 09:30:02 -0500
Subject:        Spear-shaking

Marion Morford's question about spear shaking tempts me to forward my
own (crackpot) theory concerning the origin of his surname.

Every time I hear the name broken up, it's divided as "shake-speare".
What about "shakes-peare," as in someone who might have harvested fruit
trees?

It's a long shot I know, but I do love to imagine Will's ancestors
making their living by an activity in which "the readiness is all"!

Wes Folkerth

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[3]-------------------------------------------------------------
From:           Kristine Batey <
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Date:           Thursday, 21 Jan 1999 09:35:57 -0600
Subject:        Re: Spear-shaking

Morf wrote:

>With all of the research regarding WS and KJV (and the 46 conundrum)
>which has been a semi-raging topic recently here on SHAKSPER, perhaps
>it's safe (relatively) for me to raise a question. Several years ago I
>read some books, some with near convincing paintings of WS, which  took
>the position that, in fact, Shakespeare was of African descent (meaning
>Black) hence the relatively unusual name "Shakes-speare." Is this
>reasonable? Does the Shakespeare name (obviously with alternate
>spellings) exist prior to William? Given the British tradition of last
>names being based on vocation or location (Miller, Ford, Baker, etc) at
>this part of the premise strikes me as plausible.

I'm not a scholar, but I know the name was not at all uncommon in
Warwickshire and surrounding counties. It may have been an
"occupational" name for a soldier, although I think there is some debate
about its origins. Morf's sources' association of the name with
spear-shaking African tribes is almost as ludicrous as it is racist.

Kristine Batey
Northwestern University, Evanston, Illinois, USA

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