The Shakespeare Conference: SHK 10.1679 Tuesday, 5 October 1999.
From: Roy Flannagan <
Date: Monday, 04 Oct 1999 09:22:33 -0400
Subject: Richard's "we"
In that famous soliloquy that begins the play, Richard uses "our" and
"we" freely, but the referent of the pronoun is left vague. He is far
from being king at this point, so that the royal we seems
inappropriate. He might be referring to members of his own family, but
that seems unlikely. He might also be taking the audience into his
confidence, through the medium of the soliloquy.
Can any of you answer the question who it is who shares Richard's winter