The Shakespeare Conference: SHK 10.1589  Thursday, 16 September 1999.

From:           Yvonne Bruce <
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Date:           Friday, 10 Sep 1999 16:35:29 -0400
Subject:        Hamlet and Marriage Practices

A former student of mine has a question about Tudor marriages. He had
been reflecting on Henry VIII and <A Man for All Seasons>, and remarks
that when Henry consults the Bible, he finds two distinct views on
marrying your brother's widow: one for and one against. His question is
what relevance would this divine "divided opinion" have had for an
Elizabethan audience watching <Hamlet>? Specifically, he wonders why
Shakespeare never really addresses the issue in the play, except for
Hamlet's response to his mother's marriage. He would like to know if
Shakespeare's reticence has a political foundation.

Can the listserv help?

Thanks in advance,
Yvonne Bruce