The Shakespeare Conference: SHK 11.0296  Saturday, 12 February 2000.

From:           Marilyn A. Bonomi <
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Date:           Thursday, 10 Feb 2000 08:57:41 -0500
Subject:        Query on R&J Prologue

My Honors students have raised a question for which I have no clear
answer and so am turning to my brilliant and articulate listmates for
help.

I remember my college professor telling us that Shakespeare almost
definitely did not write the Prologue to Act II and probably not the
Prologue to Act I.

>From what source might he have obtained such an opinion?

Further, it makes sense to me on a number of levels.  The second
prologue is intrusive; there is NO prologue for Acts 3-5; act and scene
divisions are editorial and arbitrary at any rate.

On a more thematic level, within the play ONLY Romeo professes a belief
in stars, fate, Fortune.  Every other character recognizes the primacy
of human action.  And yet the Prologue asserts that the pair are
"star-crossed lovers"  "whose misadventured, piteous overthrows" lead to
the end of the feud with their own lives.  The play does NOT to me seem
to support Fortune as the culprit; it seems much more to me a tragedy of
character, albeit not a very profound one in comparison to the later
plays.

Hence the question: if Shakespeare DID write the Prologue, is he
asserting that Fate is indeed the Prime Mover of this tragedy?

I welcome a thorough discussion; I have thoughts on the 1.4 line about
"he that hath the steerage of my course" for example.  But I look
forward to others' thoughts.

Marilyn A. Bonomi