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Home :: Archive :: 2000 :: March ::
Re: Ophelia / O-phallos
The Shakespeare Conference: SHK 11.0585  Monday, 27 March 2000.

[1]     From:   Clifford Stetner <
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        Date:   Friday, 24 Mar 2000 16:46:09 -0500
        Subj:   Re: SHK 11.0557 Re: Ophelia / O-phallos

[2]     From:   Florence Amit <
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        Date:   Monday, 27 Mar 2000 16:27:25 +0000
        Subj:   Re: SHK 11.0554 Re: Ophelia / O-phallos

[3]     From:   Peter Hillyar-Russ <
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        Date:   Saturday, 25 Mar 2000 18:07:45 +0000
        Subj:   Ophelia


[1]-----------------------------------------------------------------
From:           Clifford Stetner <
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Date:           Friday, 24 Mar 2000 16:46:09 -0500
Subject: 11.0557 Re: Ophelia / O-phallos
Comment:        Re: SHK 11.0557 Re: Ophelia / O-phallos

This issue has been covered very nicely, but I still wonder why,
etymologically founded or not, if Lacan was capable of seeing a phallus
in her name, Shakespeare could not have been?

Clifford

p.s. no puns please about woody O's

[2]-------------------------------------------------------------
From:           Florence Amit <
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Date:           Monday, 27 Mar 2000 16:27:25 +0000
Subject: 11.0554 Re: Ophelia / O-phallos
Comment:        Re: SHK 11.0554 Re: Ophelia / O-phallos

HELP for Ophelia and not by her. Help for an innocent whose poor brain
had been emptied of its native discretion and filled with the sexual
fantasies of men who were to direct her but instead they disappear,
leaving her bewitched. The name shows her isolation.

[3]-------------------------------------------------------------
From:           Peter Hillyar-Russ <
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Date:           Saturday, 25 Mar 2000 18:07:45 +0000
Subject:        Ophelia

Florence Amit writes,

>I am sure the Hellenistic connotations are easy to secure. I will just
>add the Hebrew: Ophelia - OF He L 'YA,  meaning, anyhow (despite her
>manner of death) she is to God.

I must say that I am not sure I follow this. The personal Name of God
(which cannot be pronounced without blasphemy by Jews) appears in the
Hebrew Bible as four consonants YHWH, "pointed" with dots and dashes
indicating the vowels of the word Adonai (Lord) which is pronounced
instead. The proper names ending -iah (e.g. Isaiah, Jeremiah), -jah
(e.g. Elijah) MAY refer to this divine name, and date from an earlier
age when the name was in use. I agree, too, that the word for 'to' is a
letter L, and the word for 'she' is "He".  I do not know any Hebrew word
like OF or OPH (but my ignorance of the vocabulary could well account
for this). I certainly do not recall any Biblical Hebrew name which
includes a preposition such as 'L', an altogether different construction
technically known as a Construct-Absolute phrase to mean "Something of
Jah" seems almost universal in these names.

In the old Psalm 46 debate I was able to suggest that if Shakespeare did
write Psalm 46 (KJV) he not only hid his name in code, but also
corrected an error in Hebrew translation, based on the textual
"pointing", first made by S Jerome, and followed by the Great Bible (but
then failed to deal with supernumerary "Selah"s in his code's word
count). I thought then - and think now - that a such a sophisticated
knowledge (by WS) of Hebrew is so unlikely that the "WS wrote Ps46"
hypothesis is effectively refuted. Is it seriously being suggested here
that the playwright coined a Hebrew name for this one character? If it
is, can further information about the presumed Hebrew original be
produced? Can any parallels for the use of a prepositional phrase such
as L-JAH within a Hebrew name (Biblical, Rabbinic or Mediaeval) be
adduced? What is the original Hebrew word giving the initial OP, OPH or
OF?

Peter Hillyar-Russ
 

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