The Shakespeare Conference: SHK 11.0826 Monday, 17 April 2000.
Date: Saturday, 15 Apr 2000 16:50:16 -0400
Subject: 11.0778 Re: Julius Caesar, Cesario, Ganymede
Comment: Re: SHK 11.0778 Re: Julius Caesar, Cesario, Ganymede
I would like to ask those who have rejected Shakespeare's intentional
use of Hebrew connotations (and many similar hypotheses) on the basis of
evidence of his own linguistic prowess, why it would not be possible for
him to consult friends and acquaintances regarding esoteric knowledge.
Given all the evidence of collaboration among the players, why is it
still acceptable to assume that if it couldn't be in Shakespeare's head,
it couldn't be in the plays?