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Home :: Archive :: 2001 :: November ::
The Shakespeare Conference: SHK 12.2690  Thursday, 29 November 2001

From:           Eduardo del Rio <
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Date:           Wednesday, 28 Nov 2001 11:09:35 -0600
Subject:        Succession

I'm sure there is an obvious answer to this, but could someone please
clarify this:

As I understand it, the principle of succession is that the throne
passes to the eldest surviving male heir. If he dies, then to *his*
eldest male heir. But which is in line first, the brother(s) or sons? If
the latter, then this is why Richard III needs to eliminate not only
Clarence (George) but also the sons of Edward IV.

How is it then, that upon Hamlet


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