The Shakespeare Conference: SHK 13.0882  Friday, 29 March 2002

From:           Martin Steward <
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Date:           Thursday, 28 Mar 2002 18:13:55 -0000
Subject:        Psychopathology & Anachronism

Hmmm. Rylance was "playing the Prince as a manic depressive", says Brad
Berens. How did he know? Did Rylance tell him in an added line? Or did
he just make the lines in the play agree with his depressive
interpretation?  Surely there were manic depressives in WS's day, just
as there were people infected by viruses. It's only the label that is
anachronistic, surely? The theory of humours did not prevent playwrights
and actors from depicting disease accurately onstage, in spite of their
imperfect knowledge of modern pathology; they saw it every day of their
lives, even if they did not understand it.

m

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