The Shakespeare Conference: SHK 13.1837 Thursday, 5 September 2002
Date: Wednesday, 4 Sep 2002 20:16:15 +0100
Subject: "Modern dress" Syndrome
Comment: SHK 13.1830 "Modern dress" Syndrome
I think I might have said this before on-list:
Shakespeare's plays, like those of his contemporaries, were not really
performed in "period costume", ever. By "period costume", I take it
critics mean "the dress usual amongst the upper classes in England
during Shakespeare's lifetime". But of course, this was not the setting
for most of his drama.
King Lear would have dressed like a Renaissance King, not an Ancient
Briton. You might have seen the odd toga in a Roman play, but this
would not have been consistent throughout the dramatis personae. Etc.,
etc., etc. Why is it an issue now, if it wasn't then?
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