The Shakespeare Conference: SHK 14.0960 Friday, 16 May 2003
Date: Thursday, 15 May 2003 07:10:21 -0700
Subject: 14.0904 Re: Hirsh and "To Be"
Comment: Re: SHK 14.0904 Re: Hirsh and "To Be"
>But one thing Hamlet does do when he is misleading characters in the
>play is to speak in prose. He speaks "To be" in verse and then switches
>to prose for Ophelia, whom he explicitly does not trust from the
>beginning of this scene. It's an interesting take on the speech but that
>switch from verse to prose sticks in my mind when thinking of III.i.
The point Hirsh makes (and demonstrates quite convincingly) is that in
"To be..." Hamlet uses the utterly traditional form of the Elizabethan
set-speech for duplicitous purposes. Your point is well-taken, but read
Hirsh and see what you think.
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