The Shakespeare Conference: SHK 14.2069 Monday, 27 October 2003
Date: Saturday, 25 Oct 2003 12:07:47 -0300
Subject: 14.2031 Hamlet
Comment: Re: SHK 14.2031 Hamlet
14.2022 Hamlet asks us:
>... are we to think that OF bet all his personal
>real property (farms, castles, etc.) against an equivalent amount of
>OH's personal real property?
Speaking as a lawyer, and without in any way criticising the posting
(which is a good one) or its message, can I sound a word of warning
against continuing the debate using the phrase "personal real property"?
In common law jurisdictions, assets are divided into personal property
and real property. The distinction is that between "realty" and
"personalty" (spelled correctly here, whatever your spell-check tells
you) and between "personal estate" and "real estate".
Realty and personality are collectively inclusive, by which I mean that
the phrase "my real and personal estate" means (and is often used in
wills to mean) "everything I own". However, realty and personality are
mutually exclusive, so "personal real property" means "nothing at all".
Presumably Don Bloom means "real estate owned personally by OF (or OH)",
as distinct from real estate of which OF (or OH) was overlord. but
unfortunately, to keep the terms of the debate precise, he needs to say
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