The Shakespeare Conference: SHK 15.0050 Thursday, 8 January 2004
From: Edmund Taft <
Date: Wednesday, 07 Jan 2004 11:52:01 -0500
Subject: King Lear
Regarding Jerry Downs lucid post of yesterday on the provenance of _King
Lear_: Do we have any evidence that Nicholas Oakes habitually or often
did a poor job as compositor? Did he mar another work/other works? In
any case, could the relatively poor condition of Q1 Lr. (1608) be one
reason why someone (Shakespeare?) revised it?
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