The Shakespeare Conference: SHK 15.0050  Thursday, 8 January 2004

From:           Edmund Taft <
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Date:           Wednesday, 07 Jan 2004 11:52:01 -0500
Subject:        King Lear

Regarding Jerry Downs lucid post of yesterday on the provenance of _King
Lear_: Do we have any evidence that Nicholas Oakes habitually or often
did a poor job as compositor? Did he mar another work/other works?  In
any case, could the relatively poor condition of Q1  Lr. (1608) be one
reason why someone (Shakespeare?) revised it?

Ed Taft

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