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Home :: Archive :: 2005 :: May ::
Shakespeare's Biblical References
The Shakespeare Conference: SHK 16.1023  Friday, 27 May 2005

[1]     From:   Norman Hinton <
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        Date:   Thursday, 26 May 2005 10:39:00 -0500
        Subj:   Re: SHK 16.1011 Shakespeare's Biblical References

[2]     From:   Bill Arnold <
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        Date:   Thursday, 26 May 2005 08:42:35 -0700 (PDT)
        Subj:   Re: SHK 16.1011 Shakespeare's Biblical References


[1]-----------------------------------------------------------------
From:           Norman Hinton <
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Date:           Thursday, 26 May 2005 10:39:00 -0500
Subject: 16.1011 Shakespeare's Biblical References
Comment:        Re: SHK 16.1011 Shakespeare's Biblical References

Obviously, if Tyndale's translation formed 80% of KJV, not all copies
had been burnt, nor did the attitudes towards it remain unchanged.

You'll find excerpts from Tyndale in many anthologies of Renaissance
English prose.  Here's what one such says in the Preface to its Trundle
excerpts:

"The test...is based upon _The Newe Testament dylygently corrected abd
compared with the Greke_, 1534 (STC 2826),

Clearly this was not burned.

[2]-------------------------------------------------------------
From:           Bill Arnold <
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Date:           Thursday, 26 May 2005 08:42:35 -0700 (PDT)
Subject: 16.1011 Shakespeare's Biblical References
Comment:        Re: SHK 16.1011 Shakespeare's Biblical References

R. A. Cantrell quotes, "I don't know why-Tyndale's translation was the
basis of the King James: scholars estimate that as much as 80% of KJV is
actually Tyndale."

Then he writes, 'They were burnt."

I fail to see that this addresses the point, which escapes me anyway as
a fact which does not support the theory that Tyndale's translation is
the basis of the KJV.  As I noted in my book on Bible translations
leading up to the KJV, they ALL are faithful to their predecessors.  And
although I have not done the mathematics, and I doubt many others have
either, translations of *Scripture* are probably closer to 90% based on
ALL the previous Bibles.  For example, I quoted in my text ALL the key
translations of John 3:16 and the differences is probably within that
10% range.  My point IS that the KJV is faithful to ALL the previous
translations, whether Greek, Latin or English, on which it was based.
Note, the New Testament came from a Greek text only.  And the Old
Testament came from the Septuagint, also a Greek text only.  The KJV,
decreed to be based on the Bishops, was, instead, in hindsight, deemed
based on the Geneva Bible.  Tyndale's did not contain all the Old
Testament, lacking for instance the Psalms and other books.  Also, for
the New Testament, the KJV used a Greek text based on Erasmus's Greek
text which was not the Greek text of the original.  In other words, the
translation processes which spanned nearly 1,400 up till the KJV is
extremely complex, although well documented in *Christology."  I do not
believe that the statement that Tyndale's was the basis for the KJV is
accurate.  Interested readers will find my book covers all this.

Bill Arnold
http://www.cwru.edu/affil/edis/scholars/arnold.htm

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