The Shakespeare Conference: SHK 17.0514  Tuesday, 30 May 2006

[1] 	From: 	R. A. Cantrell <
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	Date: 	Friday, 26 May 2006 15:21:27 -0500
	Subj: 	Re: SHK 17.0507 Shakespeare's "Small Latin and Less Greek"

[2] 	From: 	Edmund Taft <
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	Date: 	Saturday, 27 May 2006 15:57:10 -0400
	Subj: 	Shakespeare's "Small Latin and Less Greek"


[1]-----------------------------------------------------------------
From: 		R. A. Cantrell <
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Date: 		Friday, 26 May 2006 15:21:27 -0500
Subject: 17.0507 Shakespeare's "Small Latin and Less Greek"
Comment: 	Re: SHK 17.0507 Shakespeare's "Small Latin and Less Greek"

 >What I'm wondering about is this: Were those who criticized
 >Shakespeare's supposed want of education motivated by some political
 >agenda?

In my opinion, no. I think the case accords with Baldwin's account, and 
in the end arises from Jonson's pride and jealousy.

[2]-------------------------------------------------------------
From: 		Edmund Taft <
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Date: 		Saturday, 27 May 2006 15:57:10 -0400
Subject: 	Shakespeare's "Small Latin and Less Greek"

I opened this thread not to bring up the issue of Shakespeare's 
education - there's no doubt he learned a helluva lot of Latin and quite 
a bit of Greek - but to raise the more interesting question of whether 
or not Shakespeare would have written to his friends in Latin. Sure, as 
Baldwin demonstrates, one of the grammar school exercises was for a 
pupil to write a letter to his parents in Latin. But that's an exercise! 
What I'm wondering is: Would a grammar-school educated Elizabethan write 
in Latin to his neighbors, family, acquaintances, and friends? That's 
what I take Stanley Wells to be implying, and maybe it's true.

Is it?

Ed Taft

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