The Shakespeare Conference: SHK 19.0472 Friday, 15 August 2008
Date: Wednesday, 13 Aug 2008 22:35:32 +0100
I am becoming increasingly irritated (and I have probably said this before) by
the presence in modernised texts of Shakespeare's plays of the non-existent and
wholly invented pseudo-Shakespearean word "an" (meaning 'if'). This word was
invented by editors to represent a no longer current sense of the word "and."
This use of "an" had previously been banished from at least the later volumes of
the Arden 2 series, only to return with a vengeance in the Arden 3 volumes - but
the pass had already been sold by that arch-moderniser Stanley Wells in the
Oxford Shakespeare. Was a coherent explanation ever given?
S H A K S P E R: The Global Shakespeare Discussion List
The S H A K S P E R Web Site <http://www.shaksper.net>
DISCLAIMER: Although SHAKSPER is a moderated discussion list, the opinions
expressed on it are the sole property of the poster, and the editor assumes no
responsibility for them.