The Shakespeare Conference: SHK 10.1285  Thursday, 22 July 1999.

From:           Christine Tsai <This email address is being protected from spambots. You need JavaScript enabled to view it.>
Date:           Thursday, 15 Jul 1999 16:08:52 +0800
Subject:        Virginity of Elizabeth I

In March Stephanine asserted that Elizabeth never "gave herself" to a
man in that she couldn't afford to have any scandals involving
pregnancy.  But there were indeed some rumors about her affairs or even
pregnancy, which are not negligible.  To prevent the spreading of a
scandal, as we know, there are thousands of ways to abort a child before
it's recognized.  If she was so close to those courtiers, Essex for
example-despite the polar distance of their ages-why do we presume that
there hadn't been anything "special" happening?  Besides, we can't
overlook the fact that she was already during her fifties, which made
her pregnancy all the more impossible.  Why, then, couldn't she have sex
if she liked him so much and was so much admired by her courtier, plus
they had plentiful of time getting along with each other, disallowing
others' disturbance?

Christine Tsai

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